
Why is $1$ not a prime number? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Jun 28, 2022 · 50 actually 1 was considered a prime number until the beginning of 20th century. Unique factorization was a driving force beneath its changing of status, since it's formulation is quickier if 1 is …
Formal proof for $ (-1) \times (-1) = 1$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Jun 13, 2020 · Is there a formal proof for $(-1) \\times (-1) = 1$? It's a fundamental formula not only in arithmetic but also in the whole of math. Is there a proof for it or is it just assumed?
elementary number theory - Prove $ x^n-1= (x-1) (x^ {n-1}+x^ {n-2 ...
Aug 17, 2014 · Prove it for n=1; then, assuming that it is true for n=k, try to show that it is true for n=k+1. It is easy indeed. (I do not know the name of this proving method.)
what is 1 - 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 + 1/5 - 1/6 + 1/7 - 1/8 +1/9
Nov 28, 2019 · Please provide additional context, which ideally explains why the question is relevant to you and our community. Some forms of context include: background and motivation, relevant …
factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Intending on marking as accepted, because I'm no mathematician and this response makes sense to a commoner. However, I'm still curious why there is 1 way to permute 0 things, instead of 0 ways.
Series expansion: $\frac {1} { (1-x)^n}$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Jan 24, 2016 · What is the expansion for $(1-x)^{-n}$? Could find only the expansion upto the power of $-3$. Is there some general formula?
algebra precalculus - Prove $0! = 1$ from first principles ...
How can I prove from first principles that $0!$ is equal to $1$?
How can 1+1=3 be possible? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
Feb 3, 2021 · Hi, welcome to Math SE! Can you show us the proof you're looking at? There are a lot of false proofs of this sort out there, typically involving division by 0, I would imagine that's probably the …
Why is $1/i$ equal to $-i$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange
May 11, 2015 · Why is $1/i$ equal to $-i$? Ask Question Asked 10 years, 9 months ago Modified 1 year, 1 month ago Viewed 116k times
Proof of $\lim_ {x\to a}f^ {g}=e^ {\lim_ {x\to a} { (f-1)g}}$ when ...
Oct 27, 2016 · This works when the limits both exist, since $\exp$ and $\log$ are both continuous. (Phrase $\lim r^s$ as $\lim \exp (s \log r)$, and use that the limit of a product is the product of the limits.)